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In the Stackelberg model,suppose the first-mover has MR = 15 - Q1,the second firm has reaction function Q2 = 15 - Q1/2,and production occurs at zero marginal cost.Why doesn't the first-mover announce that its production is Q1 = 30 in order to exclude the second firm from the market (i.e.,Q2 = 0 in this case) ?
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