In a Normal Distribution, Why Isn't the Percentage of Scores

question 23

Multiple Choice

In a normal distribution, why isn't the percentage of scores between 0 and 1 SD above the mean the same as the percentage of scores between 1 and 2 SDs above the mean?

• A) As you move away from the mean, the scores occur progressively less frequently.
• B) As you move away from the mean, the scores occur progressively more frequently.
• C) The scores are more spread out as you move away from the mean.
• D) The scores are less spread out as you move away from the mean.

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