If $\operatorname { cur } 1 { \vec { F} } = \vec { 0 }$

question 64

True/False

If $\operatorname { cur } 1 { \vec { F} } = \vec { 0 }$ then by Stokes' Theorem the line integral $\dot { \mathrm { Q } } { \bar { F } \times \vec { d r } }$ is equal to zero, where C is the curve y = x², for 0 $\le$ x $\le$ 2.

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