Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ Necessarily Be the Same for a Given

question 114

Multiple Choice

Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?

• A) Yes, because the number of viruses that infect 50% of a test population should also kill 50% of that test population.
• B) No, because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID50 value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD50 value), for example the rhinovirus (common cold virus).
• C) No, because very few viruses are lethal, yet many are highly infectious. The two values should ALWAYS be different.
• D) Yes, because what we're actually describing here is the infection/ killing of individual cells, not of entire organisms. If a cell is infected, it will always be killed.
• E) Yes, because ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ are actually measurements of the same thing: effectiveness of a virus in entering and damaging a host cell.

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