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A 62-year-old man is being evaluated for a 6-month history of occasional epigastric pain that is relieved by eating. The patient has tried over-the-counter antacids and ranitidine with some relief. He has had no dysphagia, weight loss, black stools, or blood in the stool. The patient has a 15-pack-year smoking history and drinks alcohol socially. He immigrated to the United States from China at age 12 with his family. He had a normal screening colonoscopy 2 years ago.
Blood pressure is 126/80 mm Hg, pulse is 81/min, and BMI is 24 kg/m2. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Rectal examination reveals guaiac-negative stool. The remainder of the examination is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
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