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If the (1,1.5) -year forward rate is lognormal with volatility ,and the one-year spot rate is 4%,what is the NPV of a $100,000-notional -FRA at a 5% strike rate if the (1,1.5) -year forward rate is 6%,as seen from the buyer's point of view? (Assume the Black model applies for interest-rate options. )
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