Examlex
The following is an excerpt from William Pfaff's analysis of the 2005 French riots (Evaluating the Evidence 30.2) : "The rioting in France's ghetto suburbs is a phenomenon of futility-but a revelation nonetheless. It has no ideology and no purpose other than to make a statement of distress and anger. It is beyond politics. It broke out spontaneously and spread in the same way, communicated by televised example, ratified by the huge attention it won from the press and television and the politicians, none of whom had any idea what to do.
It has been an immensely pathetic spectacle, whose primary meaning has been that it happened. It has been the most important popular social phenomenon in France since the student uprisings of 1968. But those uprisings . . . had consequences for power. The new riots have nothing to do with power."
In Pfaff's view, how were the 2005 riots different than the 1968 riots?
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