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A child is stung by a bee at the beginning of the summer and has mild swelling and itching at the site of the sting. In late summer, the child is stung again, but this time rapidly develops anaphylaxis and is diagnosed with type I hypersensitivity to bee venom. If the child is allergic to bee venom, why was there no reaction after the first bee sting? What specifically happened after the first sting that led to the allergic reaction?
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