A 66-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office for Follow-Up of Metastatic

question 366

Multiple Choice

A 66-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up of metastatic prostate cancer.  He was diagnosed 12 months ago, when he was found to have a single bony metastasis.  The patient declined orchiectomy and was treated with a long-acting gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist.  While on this therapy, he developed nocturnal pain in the area of the bony metastasis and was found to have a rising level of prostate-specific antigen.  Flutamide was then added to his initial therapy and led to significant pain relief and a decrease in the size of the primary tumor.  Which of the following mechanisms is the best explanation for the effects of flutamide in this patient?

• A)Decreased androgen aromatization
• B)Decreased Leydig cell stimulation
• C)Decreased peripheral androgen conversion
• D)Impaired androgen-receptor interaction
• E)Inhibition of androgen synthesis

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Definitions:

Present Value

The now-value of a prospective sum of money or cash flow sequence, according to a certain rate of return.

Rate of Return

The financial outcome, either positive or negative, of an investment within a set period, delineated as a proportion of the investment’s initial outlay.

Interest Rate

The percentage charged on a loan or paid on deposits over a period of time, often annually.

Future Value

The estimated value of an investment at a specific future date, considering factors like interest rates or returns over time.