Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ Necessarily Be the Same for a Given

question 130

Multiple Choice

Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?

• A) Yes, because the number of viruses that infect 50% of a test population should also kill 50% of that test population.
• B) No, because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID₅₀ value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD₅₀ value). A prime example of this is the rhinovirus (common cold virus).
• C) No, because very few viruses are lethal, yet many are highly infectious. The 2 values should ALWAYS be different.
• D) Yes, because what we're actually describing here is infection/killing of individual CELLS, not of entire organisms. If a cell is infected, it will always be killed.

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