Why Did the Court Imply a Term into the Contract

question 30

Multiple Choice

Why did the court imply a term into the contract in The Moorcock (1889) 14 PD 64?

• A)Because the practice was so well known it was understood to be included in every contract.
• B)To sever a meaningless term and save the rest of the contract.
• C)Because of prior dealings between the parties.
• D)To overcome an omission and give effect to the intention of the parties.

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Definitions:

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